From the definition of big oh: We say that "$f(n)$ is big oh $g(n)$" if there exists an integer $n_0$ and a constant $c>0$ such that for all integers $n\geq n_0$, $f(n)\leq cg(n)$.
Substituting the equation we have:
$$3n^2 - n+4\leq cn^2$$
Since I can choose $c$ to be, say, $5000$ and $n$ to be $1$, does that mean I have proven it is $O(n^2)$ because the righthand side will be larger?
For $n>1$ you have $$ 0<3n^2 - n + 4 \le 3n^2 +n^2 = 4n^2 $$