I'm studying Category Theory in Context, and I'm stuck on this seemingly easy problem. Hints would be appreciated.
My attempt:
Let $C$ be a locally small category, and let $C \cong D$. (i.e. $C$ and $D$ are equivalent.)
We note that there exists fully faithful functor $F: C \rightarrow D$.
Fix $x, y \in D$.
Here's where I'm stuck. If we could find $x', y' \in C$ such that $F(x') = x$ and $F(y') = y$, we would be done since the map sending $C(x',y')$ to $D(F(x'), F(y'))$ is bijective and $C(x',y')$ is a set.
But we are not guaranteed to find such $x'$ and $y'$.
We also know that $F$ is essentially surjective, but that doesn't seem to help either.
I do realize there's a similar question here: If a category is locally small, any category equivalent to it is again locally small. but it doesn't seem to address my concern.
Thanks for your help!
Essential surjectivity of $F$ does help. Indeed, if $x \cong F(x')$ and $y\cong F(y')$, then $D(x,y)\cong D(F(x'), F(y'))$, and so you may then apply your reasoning to get that this is $\cong C(x',y')$.