Problem
Let $f:\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}$ be a continuous function such that for all $x\in\mathbb{R}$ and for all $t\geqslant 0$, $$f(x)=f(e^tx)$$Show that $f$ is a constant function.
My proof
Take $t=1$. Then for any fixed $r \in \mathbb{R}$, it's clear that $$f(r)=f \left(\frac{r}{e}\right)=f \left(\frac{r}{e^{2}}\right)=f \left(\frac{r}{e^{3}}\right)=\cdots=f \left(\frac{r}{e^{n}}\right).$$Take the limits of both sides as $n \to \infty$. Notice that $\dfrac{r}{e^n} \to 0$ as $n \to \infty$. By the continuity of $f(x)$, we have $$f(r)=\lim_{n \to \infty}f(r)=\lim_{n \to \infty}f \left(\frac{r}{e^{n}}\right)=f\left(\lim_{n \to \infty}\frac{r}{e^{n}}\right)=f(0).$$This shows that $f(x) \equiv f(0)$.
Please Correct me if I'm wrong.
Good job. Your working seems fine.
It might be not clear to someone as pointed out in the comment about letting $t=1$. In that case, just state what your $x$ is explicitly. Let $x=\frac{r}{e^{m}}, m \ge 0$ and hence we have $$f\left( \frac{r}{e^{m}}\right)=f\left(e\cdot \frac{r}{e^m} \right)$$ and $$f\left(e\cdot \frac{r}{e^m} \right)=f\left( \frac{r}{e^{m}}\right)$$
$$f\left(\frac{r}{e^{m-1}} \right)=f\left( \frac{r}{e^{m}}\right)$$
Remark:
Your working shows that the claim remains true for example if we restrict $t$ to be nonnegative integers.