Can someone help me with proving that
\begin{align} f_n: \mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R }, \hspace{0.5cm} f_n(x)= \begin{cases} \frac{\sin^2(n^{\alpha}x)}{nx} & \text{ if } x \neq 0, \\ 0 & \text{ if } x = 0 \end{cases} \end{align}
is not uniformly convergent if $\alpha \geq 1, \forall x \in \mathbb{R} $.
I've unsucessfully tried to show that $ \underset{x \in \mathbb{R}} \sup |f_n(x)| \nrightarrow 0 $. Same with the definition of uniform convergence.
Use the logical negation of uniform convergence: exists some $\epsilon>0$ such that for any $N\in\Bbb N$ there is some $x_N\in\Bbb R$ such that exists $n_0\ge N$ and $$|f_{n_0}(x_N)-f(x_N)|\ge\epsilon$$
Because $f=0$ then for $\epsilon:=1/2$ and any $N\in\Bbb N_{>0}$ if we choose $x_N:=\pi/(2N^\alpha)$ then for $n_0:=N$ we find that $$|f_{n_0}(x_N)-f(x_N)|=|f_{n_0}(x_N)|=\frac{2N^{\alpha-1}}\pi\sin^2(\pi/2)=\frac{2N^{\alpha-1}}\pi\ge\frac2\pi>\frac12$$
when $\alpha\ge 1$.