This is from the following question :
Show that the set $\{f_n\} \mathbb{_n} _\in \mathbb{_N}$ where $\{f_n\}({x}) = \text{sgn}(\sin(2^n\pi{x}))$ is orthonormal on the interval $[0,1]$
Honestly stuck on figuring out how to compute the following integral:
$$\int_{0}^{1}\text{sgn}(\sin(2^j\pi {x}))\text{sgn}(\sin(2^k\pi {x}))dx = 0$$
I'm fairly sure that when $j = k$, we are left with $\text{sgn}(-)^2$ which we can just assume is going to be $1$ for all cases, but for cases where $j \neq k$ I'm a bit stuck.
Hint : Use the fact that:
$$\text{sgn}\sin (x) = \sum_{l=0}^{\infty}\left(\mathbf 1_{\left[2l\pi, (2l+1)\pi\right]}(x)-\mathbf 1_{\left[(2l+1)\pi, 2(l+1)\pi\right]}(x)\right)$$
Since
$$ 1_{\left[p\pi, (p+1)\pi\right]}(2^j\pi x) = \mathbf 1_{\left[\frac{p}{2^{j}}, \frac{p}{2^{j}} + \frac{1}{2^j}\right]}(x) $$
then for $k < j$
\begin{align} \int_{0}^1 1_{\left[p\pi, (p+1)\pi\right]}(2^j\pi x)1_{\left[m\pi, (m+1)\pi\right]}(2^k \pi x)\mathrm d x &= \int_{0}^1 1_{\left[\frac{p}{2^{j}}, \frac{p}{2^{j}} + \frac{1}{2^j}\right]}(x)1_{\left[\frac{2^{j-k}m}{2^{j}}, \frac{2^{j-k}m}{2^{j}} + \frac{2^{j-k}}{2^j}\right]}(x)\mathrm d x\\ &=\left\{\begin{array}{ll} \frac1{2^j} & \text{if $2^{j-k}m \le p\le 2^{j-k}m + 2^{j-k}$}\\ 0 & \text{otherwise} \end{array}\right. \end{align} \begin{align} \implies \quad \int_{0}^1 \left(1_{\left[2p\pi, (2p+1)\pi\right]}(2^j\pi x)-1_{\left[(2p+1)\pi, 2(p+1)\pi\right]}(2^j\pi x)\right)1_{\left[m\pi, (m+1)\pi\right]}(2^k \pi x)\mathrm d x &= 0&&\forall p \in \mathbb N \end{align}
After summing you will find what you are looking for.