Show that for a sequence of real numbers $(a_n)_n$ $\lim_n a_n=0$ implies $\frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=0}^{n-1}\lvert a_i\rvert=0$

Question

Let $(a_n)_{n\in\mathbb{N}}$ be q sequence of real numbers with $\lim_{n\to\infty}a_n=0$. Show that this implies $$ \lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=0}^{n-1}\lvert a_i\rvert=0. $$

This is my idea how to prove it, unfortunately do not know if it is right:

Let $\varepsilon > 0$ be arbitrary, then there exists a $N(\varepsilon)$ with $\lvert a_n\rvert < \varepsilon$ for all $n\geqslant N(\varepsilon)$.

So it is $$ \lim_{n\to\infty}\sum_{i=0}^{n-1}\lvert a_i\rvert=\sum_{i=0}^{\infty}\lvert a_i\rvert=\sum_{i=0}^{N(\varepsilon)-1}\lvert a_i\rvert+\sum_{i=N(\varepsilon)}^{\infty}\lvert a_i\rvert\leqslant\sum_{i=0}^{N(\varepsilon)-1}\lvert a_i\rvert+\sum_{i=N(\varepsilon)}^{\infty}\varepsilon\leqslant M $$ for a $M\geqslant 0$ for $\varepsilon \to 0$.

So the limits exists. Because $\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{1}{n}=0$, i.e. the limit exsits, too, one can write the limit as the product of both limits, i.e. $$ \lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=0}^{n-1}\lvert a_i\rvert=\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{1}{n}\cdot\lim_{n\to\infty}\sum_{i=0}^{n-1}\lvert a_i\rvert=0\cdot M=0. $$

Answer 1

My solution is as follows:

Ignore $a_0$. As $\lim_{n\to\infty} a_n = 0$, for each $ε_n = 1/n^2$, we can find an integer $N(n)$ such that $|a_n| < 1/n^2$ for every $n \ge N(n)$. Then: $$sum_{k=1}^n |a_k| < sum_{k=1}^n 1/k^2 < sum_{k=1}^\infty 1/k^2 =\pi^2/6 $$ Then $$\lim_{n\to\infty} (1/n)\times(sum_{k=1}^n |a_k|) \le \lim_{n\to\infty} 1/n\times\pi^2/6 = 0$$

Answer 2

Is very easy with Cesàro-Stolz: $$\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{\sum_{i=0}^{n-1}\lvert a_i\rvert}n=\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{|a_n|}{1}=\lim_{n\to\infty}|a_n|=|\lim_{n\to\infty}a_n|=0.$$