show that for $n=1,2,...,$ the number $1+\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{3}+...+\frac{1}{n}-\ln(n)$ is positive, that it decreases as $n$ increases, and hence that the sequence of these numbers converges to a limit between $0$ and $1$ (Euler's constant).
I'm trying to prove this by induction on $n$ and I made the base step, I could not with the inductive step because to do so suppose that for $n=1,2,\dots,$ it is true that $1+\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{3}+\dots+\frac{1}{n}-\ln(n)$ is positive and let's see that $1+\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{3}+...+\frac{1}{n}+\frac{1}{n+1}-\ln(n+1)$ is positive, We see that \begin{align} &1+\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{3}+\dots+\frac{1}{n}+\frac{1}{n+1})-\ln(n+1)\\ =&1+\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{3}+\dots+\frac{1}{n}-\ln(n)+\frac{1}{n+1}-\ln(n+1)+\ln(n)\\ >&\frac{1}{n+1}-\ln(n+1)+\ln(n) \end{align} But I do not know how to prove that $\frac{1}{n+1}-\ln(n+1)+\ln(n)>0$ what do you say? Can you do what I did?

There is a different way (more long) that is not using integrals. First observe that $$n=\prod_{k=1}^{n-1}\frac{k+1}k$$
Hence
$$\sum_{k=1}^n\frac1k-\ln(n)=\frac1n+\sum_{k=1}^{n-1}\left(\frac1k-\ln\left(\frac{k+1}k\right)\right)$$
Then if we define in $[1,\infty)$ the function
$$f(x):=\frac1x-\ln\left(\frac{x+1}x\right)$$
we can see that $f'(x)=-\frac1{x^2(x+1)}$ is negative, hence $f$ is strictly decreasing. From here is easy to check that $f$ is positive because $f(1)>0$, $\lim_{x\to\infty}f(x)=0$ and $f$ is continuous. Then
$$\frac1k-\ln\left(\frac{k+1}k\right)>0,\quad\forall k\in\Bbb N_{>0}$$