How to show that the function $f\mapsto\dfrac{te^t}{e^{2t}-1}$ is integrable on $(0,+\infty)$ ?
I think it suffices to say that $f\mapsto\dfrac{te^t}{e^{2t}-1}$ is well-defined and continuous on $(0,+\infty)$, then it is continuous, right? My colleague told me that is not correct, you have to approximate the function at $0$ and at $+\infty$.
EDIT I think I can show something at $+\infty$.
We have $\dfrac{te^t}{e^{2t}-1}\sim\dfrac{te^t}{e^{2t}}=te^{-t}=o(\dfrac{1}{t^2})$
How about at $0$ ?
You can simply do the integral to show it is integrable. Collect a $e^{2t}$ factor in the dominator:
$$\int_0^{+\infty}\frac{te^t}{e^{2t}(1 - e^{-2t})}\ \text{d}t$$
Arrange the integral, and use the Geometric series:
$$\frac{1}{1 - e^{-2t}} = \sum_{k = 0}^{+\infty} e^{-2tk}$$
Getting
$$\sum_{k = 0}^{+\infty}\int_0^{+\infty} t\ e^{-t(1+2k)}\ \text{d}t$$
The integral is trivial (you can do it by parts once) and you get in the end:
$$\sum_{k = 0}^{+\infty} \frac{1}{(1 + 2k)^2}$$
The Series does converge to
$$\boxed{\frac{\pi^2}{8}}$$
Showing the function has no problem in $0$
Use Taylor Series:
$$\frac{t(1+t)}{1 + 2t - 1} = \frac{t + t^2}{2t} = \frac{1}{2} + \frac{t}{2} = \frac{1}{2}$$
Well defined in zero.
How to show it's sum is $\frac{\pi}{8}$
If we write the first terms of the sum, we have:
$$1 + \frac{1}{9} + \frac{1}{25} + \frac{1}{49} + \frac{1}{81} + \cdots + \frac{1}{n_{\text{disp}}^2}$$
This sum is indeed the sum of all the odd squares. This is a particular sum, and we can see it as the sum of ALL the reciprocal squares, minus the sum of the EVEN reciprocal squares, indeed we can write:
$$1 + \frac{1}{4} + \frac{1}{9} + \frac{1}{16} + \frac{1}{25} + \frac{1}{36} + \frac{1}{49} + \frac{1}{64} + \frac{1}{81} + \cdots + \frac{1}{n^2}$$
if we subtract from this the sum of all even reciprocal squares, we obtain exactly our sum. Translated into mathish it's like to have (calling OUR sum $S$)
$$S = \frac{1}{n^2} - \frac{1}{(2n)^2}$$
namely again: our sum is the whole sum of reciprocal squares, minus the sum of all the EVEN reciprocal squares. We can do that simple subtraction:
$$S = \frac{3n^2}{4n^4} = \frac{3}{4n^2}$$
This means that our sum is three quarters the value of the sum of all the reciprocal squares which is a well known series (also it's the Riemann Zeta vaulted in $2$):
$$\sum_{k = 1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n^2} = \sum_{k = 1}^{+\infty} \frac{1}{(k+1)^2} = \frac{\pi^2}{6}$$
Since our sum is three quarters of that value we get:
$$S = \frac{3}{4}\cdot \frac{\pi^2}{6} = \frac{\pi^2}{8}$$