Show that if $||\cdot||_1$, $||\cdot||_2$ are equivalent norms then $(V,||\cdot||_1)$ is a banach space iff $(V,||\cdot||_2)$ is. I really didn't get it. Of course both spaces are normed spaces but there are two things I don't understand:
Why is it so important to look at "Cauchy sequences"? Why can't I look at converging sequences? Aren't those equivalent?
If those are equivalent, ones a sequence converges to a limit (which is in the space) should it be different in the other "space", that is $(V,||\cdot||_2)?
I really didn't understand what I need to do here. I would truly appreciate your help.
It suffices to show that
a sequence $\left\{v_n\right\}$ is Cauchy in $\left\Vert\cdot\right\Vert_1$ iff it is Cauchy in $\left\Vert\cdot\right\Vert_2$.
a sequence $\left\{v_n\right\}$ converges in $\left\Vert\cdot\right\Vert_1$ iff it converges in $\left\Vert\cdot\right\Vert_2$.
Why is this sufficient? Because then the argument goes like this: Suppose $\left\Vert\cdot\right\Vert_1$ is complete; that is, $V$ is a Banach space in the $\left\Vert\cdot\right\Vert_1$ metric. Let $\left\{v_n\right\}$ be a Cauchy sequence in $\left\Vert\cdot\right\Vert_2$. By (1.) the sequence is Cauchy in $\left\Vert\cdot\right\Vert_1$. Since $\left\Vert\cdot\right\Vert_1$ is complete, the sequence converges in $\left\Vert\cdot\right\Vert_1$, and by (2.) the sequence converges in $\left\Vert\cdot\right\Vert_2$. Therefore $\left\Vert\cdot\right\Vert_2$ is complete.