Given some set $S$, and that $u = \inf(S)$, show that $u \in \bar{S}$
I figured that you can say that
\begin{align} & \inf(S) = u \\ & \Rightarrow \forall x \in S, u \lt x \\ & \Rightarrow \forall \varepsilon \gt 0, u - \varepsilon \notin S \ \land u + \varepsilon \in S \end{align}
and that implies that $\inf(S)$ is a boundary point of $S$, and thus will be in $\bar{S}$. Does that make sense, or is there a better way to show it?
You should replace the following statement in the third statement:
Now choose $\varepsilon = 1/n$ inductively and create the desired sequence, as suggested by Pawel.