Show that : $$ \int_{0}^{\Large\frac\pi2} {\ln^{2}\left(\vphantom{\large A}\cos\left(x\right)\right) \ln^{2}\left(\vphantom{\large A}\sin\left(x\right)\right) \over \cos\left(x\right)\sin\left(x\right)}\,{\rm d}x ={1 \over 4}\, \bigg[2\,\zeta\left(5\right) - \zeta\left(2\right)\zeta\left(3\right) \bigg] $$
I can only do non squared one. Anyone has a clue?
Related problems: (I), (II), (III), (IV), (V), (6). Use the change of variables $\ln(\cos(x))=t$ to transform the integral to
Follow it by another change of variables $ 1-e^{2t}=z $ gives
$$\frac{1}{4}\,\int _{-\infty }^{0}\!{\frac {{t}^{2} \left( \ln \left( 1-{ {\rm e}^{2\,t}} \right) \right) ^{2}}{1- {{\rm e}^{2t}} }}{dt}= \frac{1}{32}\,\int _{0}^{1}\!{\frac { \left( \ln \left( 1-z \right) \right) ^{2} \left( \ln \left( z \right) \right) ^{2}}{z \left( 1- z\right) }}{dz}$$
$$= \frac{1}{32}\,\int _{0}^{1}\!{\frac { \left( \ln \left( 1-z \right) \right) ^{2} \left( \ln \left( z \right) \right) ^{2}}{z }}{dz}+\frac{1}{32}\,\int _{0}^{1}\!{\frac { \left( \ln\left( 1-z \right) \right) ^{2} \left( \ln \left( z \right) \right) ^{2}}{ \left( 1- z\right) }}{dz} $$
Getting the exact result: Integral (1) can be evaluated as
$$ \frac{1}{16}\,\int _{0}^{1}\!{\frac { \left( \ln \left( 1-z \right) \right)^{2} \left( \ln \left( z \right) \right)^{2}}{z }}{dz}=\frac{1}{16} \lim_{w\to 0}\lim_{s\to 0^+}\frac{d^2}{dw^2}\frac{d^2}{ds^2}\int_{0}^{1} (1-z)^{w}z^{s-1}dz $$
$$ = \frac{1}{16}\lim_{w\to 0}\lim_{s\to 0^+}\frac{d^2}{dw^2}\frac{d^2}{ds^2}\beta(s,w+1)=\frac{1}{16}\lim_{w\to 0}\lim_{s\to 0^+}\frac{d^2}{dw^2}\frac{d^2}{ds^2}\frac{\Gamma(s)\Gamma(w+1)}{\Gamma(s+w+1)}$$
where $\beta(u,v)$ is the beta function.
Other forms for the solution 1: Using integration by parts with $u=\ln^2(1-z)$, integral $(1)$ can be written as
$$ \frac{1}{16}\,\int _{0}^{1}\!{\frac { \left( \ln \left( 1-z \right) \right)^{2} \left( \ln \left( z \right)\right)^{2}}{z }}{dz}=\frac{1}{24}\,\int _{0}^{1}\!{\frac{ \ln\left( 1-z \right)\left( \ln \left( z \right) \right)^{3}}{1-z}}{dz} $$
$$ = -\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}(\psi(n+1)+\gamma)\int_{0}^{1}z^n\ln^3(z)dz = \frac{1}{4}\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{\psi(n+1)+\gamma}{(n+1)^4}. $$
You can use the identity $ H_{n-1}=\psi(n)+\gamma $, where $H_n$ are the harmonic numbers, to write the result as
Other forms for the solution 2: We can have the following form for the solution
Note 1: we used the power series expansion of the function $ \frac{\ln(1-z)}{1-z}, $
Note 2: Try to tackle integral $(1)$ using the technique used in solving your previous question.