How can one show that
$$I=\int_{1/e}^e \left|\frac{\ln x}{1+x}\right|\,\mathrm{d}x=\frac{1}{2}$$
preferably without resorting to the polylogarithm function?
Mathematica returns
1 + Pi^2/6 + PolyLog[2, -1/E] + PolyLog[2, -E]
which is numerically equivalent to $0.5$.
The first thing that comes to mind is to remove the absolute value and consider the two integrals
$$I=\color{red}{I_1}-\color{blue}{I_2}=\color{red}{\int_1^e\frac{\ln x}{1+x}\,\mathrm{d}x}-\color{blue}{\int_{1/e}^1\frac{\ln x}{1+x}\,\mathrm{d}x}$$
Is there a substitution that would reduce this to $\frac{1}{2}$?
Another method I've considered is to integrate by parts:
$$I=1-\int_1^e\frac{\ln(1+x)}{x}\,\mathrm{d}x+\int_{1/e}^1\frac{\ln(1+x)}{x}\,\mathrm{d}x$$
but this only seems to force me down a path of using the Mercator series (at least for the second integral, considering the interval of convergence of the series) and polylogarithm.
By setting $x=e^t$ we are left with
$$ I = \int_{-1}^{1}e^t\left|\frac{t}{1+e^t}\right|\,dt = \int_{0}^{1}\frac{t}{1+e^{-t}}\,dt+\int_{0}^{1}\frac{t}{1+e^t}\,dt=\int_{0}^{1}t\,dt=\color{red}{\frac{1}{2}},$$ sic et simpliciter.