Let $A,B\in\mathbb C^{n\times n}$ and suppose there exists $\lambda\in\mathbb C$ such that $\lambda A+B$ invertible. How does one deduce that:
$$(\lambda A+B)^{-1}B=1-\lambda\left((\lambda A+B)^{-1}A\right)?$$
I feel that this should be quite easy, and no doubt it is - my apprehension is that $(\lambda A+B)^{-1}$ need not have an immediately obvious form.
Begin with the simple observation that
$B = (\lambda A + B) - \lambda A \tag 1$
and, exploiting the given hypothesis that $\lambda A + B$ is invertible, multiply through by $(\lambda A + B)^{-1}$:
$(\lambda A + B)^{-1}B$ $= (\lambda A + B)^{-1} (\lambda A + B) - (\lambda A + B)^{-1} \lambda A$ $= I - \lambda ((\lambda A + B)^{-1} A), \tag 2$
thus obtaining the requisite result.