Let $n = 3k$ . Show that $\displaystyle{\lim\limits_{n \rightarrow \infty} \frac{\Sigma_{i=0}^k \binom{n}{3i}}{2^n} = \frac{1}{3}}$ . In other words, the sum of every third element of the nth row of the Pascal triangle is roughly one third of the sum of all elements of that row; after this, generalize the result.
attempt:
$\displaystyle{\begin{array}{ll} \lim\limits_{n \rightarrow \infty} \displaystyle{\frac{\Sigma_{i=0}^k \binom{3k}{3i}}{2^n}} & = \\\\ \lim\limits_{n \rightarrow \infty} \displaystyle{\frac{\binom{3k}{0} + \binom{3k}{3} + \binom{3k}{6} + \cdot \cdot \cdot + \binom{3k}{k} }{2^n}} & = \\\\ \lim_\limits{n \rightarrow \infty} \displaystyle{\frac{\frac{3k!}{0! 3k!} + \frac{3k!}{3!(3k-3)!} + \frac{3k!}{6!(3k-6)!} + \cdot \cdot \cdot + \frac{3k!}{3k!(3k - 3k)!} }{2^n}} & = \\\\ \lim_\limits{n \rightarrow \infty} \displaystyle{\frac{\frac{1}{1} + \frac{3k (3k-1)(3k-2)(3k-3)....2 \cdot 1}{3!(3k-3)!} + \frac{3k(3k-1)(3k-2)...(3k-6)...2.1}{6!(3k-6)!} + \cdot \cdot \cdot + \frac{1}{1} }{2^n}} & = \\\\ \lim_\limits{n \rightarrow \infty} \displaystyle{\frac{\frac{1}{1} + \frac{3k (3k-1)(3k-2)(3k-3)}{3!} + \frac{3k(3k-1)(3k-2)...(3k-5)}{6!} + \cdot \cdot \cdot + \frac{1}{1} }{2^n}} \end{array}}$
I am stuck. If $n = 3k$ approaches infinity then it seems that we would have $0$ on the numerator and so the expression would go to $0$ and not $1/3$ .
Could someone please help me ? and give me some feedback. Thank you
Let $\omega=\exp\left(\frac{2\pi i}{3}\right)$. The characteristic function of the integers $n$ of the form $3k$ can be written as $\frac{1+\omega^n+\omega^{2n}}{3}$ (this is the principle behind the discrete Fourier transform) hence
$$ \sum_{i\geq 0}\binom{n}{3i} = \frac{1}{3}\sum_{k=0}^{n}\binom{n}{k}(1+\omega^k+\omega^{2k})=\frac{2^n+(1+\omega)^n+(1+\omega^2)^n}{3}$$ and accidentally both $1+\omega$ and $1+\omega^2$ have unit modulus, hence the term $(1+\omega)^n+(1+\omega^2)^n$ is bounded by $2$ in modulus, regardless of $n$. It follows that $$ \lim_{n\to +\infty}\frac{1}{2^n}\sum_{i\geq 0}\binom{n}{3i}=\color{red}{\frac{1}{3}} $$ as wanted. In other terms,
That holds also if $3$ is replaced by $4,5,6,7,\ldots$, but the speed of convergence is quite different:
to prove it (through the DFT) is an interesting exercise I leave to the reader / to the OP.