Detailed outline: write $f(n) = \varepsilon(n)g(n)$, with by assumption $\lim_{n\to\infty}\varepsilon(n) = 0$.
Then
$$
\frac{3^{f(n)}}{3^{g(n)}} = \frac{1}{3^{g(n)-f(n)}}
= \frac{1}{3^{(1-\varepsilon(n))g(n)}}\,.\tag{1}
$$
Since $x\mapsto 3^x$ is continuous, it suffices to prove that
$$
\lim_{n\to\infty}(1-\varepsilon(n))g(n) = +\infty\,.\tag{2}
$$
Since $\lim_{n\to\infty}(1-\varepsilon(n)) = 1$, it suffices to prove that
$$
\lim_{n\to\infty} g(n) = +\infty\,.\tag{3}
$$
But this follows from our assumption that $f(n)\geq 1$ for all $n$:
$$
g(n) \geq \frac{g(n)}{f(n)} = \frac{1}{f(n)/g(n)} \xrightarrow[n\to\infty]{} \infty\,.
$$
Note that this would be false without the monotonicity assumption on $f,g$, as shown in this other question.
Detailed outline: write $f(n) = \varepsilon(n)g(n)$, with by assumption $\lim_{n\to\infty}\varepsilon(n) = 0$. Then $$ \frac{3^{f(n)}}{3^{g(n)}} = \frac{1}{3^{g(n)-f(n)}} = \frac{1}{3^{(1-\varepsilon(n))g(n)}}\,.\tag{1} $$ Since $x\mapsto 3^x$ is continuous, it suffices to prove that $$ \lim_{n\to\infty}(1-\varepsilon(n))g(n) = +\infty\,.\tag{2} $$ Since $\lim_{n\to\infty}(1-\varepsilon(n)) = 1$, it suffices to prove that $$ \lim_{n\to\infty} g(n) = +\infty\,.\tag{3} $$ But this follows from our assumption that $f(n)\geq 1$ for all $n$: $$ g(n) \geq \frac{g(n)}{f(n)} = \frac{1}{f(n)/g(n)} \xrightarrow[n\to\infty]{} \infty\,. $$
Note that this would be false without the monotonicity assumption on $f,g$, as shown in this other question.