Given the localised ring $\mathbb{Z}_{(3)}=\{\frac{n}{3^k}|n \in \mathbb{Z} ;k\in\mathbb{N}\}$, I want to show that this is not a field.
The main condition for a field is the existence of an inverse, such that: $\exists y \in \mathbb{Z}_{(3)}:\frac{n}{3^k}\cdot y=1$ $\implies \frac{n}{3^k}\cdot \frac{m}{3^l}=1 $ (for a certain $m\in \mathbb{Z} ;l\in\mathbb{N}$)$\implies nm=3^{k+l}$, which is not always fullfilled, because of an counter example, $n=1$ and $m=2$. Is this a correct proof? Or do I have to go further?
You have correctly identified what you need to do: you need to show that there exists $\frac{n}{3^k}\in\mathbb{Z}_{(3)}$ with the property that there does not exist an $\frac{m}{3^{\ell}}\in\mathbb{Z}_{(3)}$ such that $\frac{n}{3^k}\cdot \frac{m}{3^{\ell}} = 1$.
However, I do not think you have correctly done this. The obvious way to accomplish this is, again as you have tried to do, to simply exhibit a specific $n$ and a specific $k$ and show it has the desired property. That means showing that for this specific choice of $n$ and $k$, no choice of $m$ and $\ell$ will have the property that $\frac{n}{3^k}\cdot \frac{m}{3^{\ell}} = 1$. That suggests that your answer should:
However, what you do instead is specify $n$ and $m$.
Moreover, for your choice of $n$, namely $n=1$, it is not true that $\frac{n}{3^k}$ has no inverse! If $n=1$ and $k$ is an arbitrary nonnegative integer, then $\frac{n}{3^k} = \frac{1}{3^k}$ does have an inverse in $\mathbb{Z}_{(3)}$: namely,$\frac{3^{k+1}}{3}$ is an inverse for $\frac{1}{3^k}$.
You are close, though: if you take $n=2$ and $k=1$, say, to get $\frac{2}{3}$, then you want to show that there is no choice of $m$ and $\ell$ that will satisy $\frac{2}{3}\cdot \frac{m}{3^{\ell}} = 1$. Do that.