¬(p →¬q)≡ q∧p Commutative Law ≡ p∧q Commutative Law
That's my solution. Is it right?
¬(p →¬q)≡ q∧p Commutative Law ≡ p∧q Commutative Law
That's my solution. Is it right?
On
If your question is: is the final answer right, then yes your answer is correct, however your justification is incorrect. You need a little more to get there: $\neg (p \rightarrow \neg q)$ can be written as $\neg (\neg p \lor \neg q)$ by the definition of $\rightarrow$ and applying DeMorgan's law we get that $\neg (p \rightarrow \neg q)$ is the same as $p \land q$
On
It is clear when $p \land q$ is true: if, and only if, both $p$ and $q$ are true.
When is $\neg(p \rightarrow \neg q)$ true? Well, when the parenthetical $p \rightarrow \neg q$ is false. Noting that this equivalent statement is an if-then implication, it can only be false if the given is true and the conclusion is false; i.e., if $p$ is true and $\neg q$ is false, from which the latter can be rephrased as $p$ true and $q$ true: precisely the desired conclusion.
On
¬(p->¬q) ≡ ¬(¬p∨¬q)
¬(p->¬q) ≡ p∧q
Let's try to visualise the problem. This can be explained with ven diagram also. (p->¬q) means, if p is true, then q is not true for some x in any of the 4 faces of the ven diagram with p and q. Let's color the area's with white if x satisfies p->¬q. else black.
Our final argument says to negate(p->¬q). So, only p∩q will be white and all other parts of the ven diagram will be false, which proves that ¬(p->¬q) implies p∩q or, p∧q.
p->q='p V q
In your case p->'q=p'V q'
When you invert it: '(p' V q')=p ∧ q
This is the final answer.