In picture below, I am not sure why $R(\partial_i,\partial_j)h_{kp}=0$. I think it is because we can consider $h_{kp}$ as a function. Am I right ?
The picture below is from 57th page of this paper.
2026-03-25 16:00:03.1774454403
Show that $R(\partial_i,\partial_j)h_{kp}=0$.
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