I have to show that the set $$S={\bigcup \limits_{n=1}^{\infty} \left(n - \frac{1}{n}, n + \frac{1}{n}\right)}$$cannot be expressed as the union of open balls of the same radius $r$.
I am not sure how to prove this. I understand intuitively why this is not possible. But I am not sure how to proceed with the proof.
I know it's probably a proof by contradiction. But I am not sure how to begin - for example, I don't even know where to assume the balls are centred..
Notation: I will write $B(x,r)$ for the open ball of radius $r$ about $x$; i.e. $B(x,r)=(x-r,x+r)$. I will write $d(a,b)=|a-b|$ for the distance.
Suppose that $S$ is a union of balls of some fixed radius $r$; that is $S=\bigcup_x B(x,r)$ for some points $x\in S$. Certainly, there is some positive integer $N$ such that $r>\frac{2}{N}$. But then since $N\in S$ (as it lies in the interval $(N-\frac{1}{N},N+\frac{1}{N})$ ), $N\in B(x,r)$ for some $x$.
Note that on one hand, $x\in (N-\frac{1}{N}, N+\frac{1}{N})$. If not, then since $x\in S$, $x\in (n-\frac{1}{n}, n+\frac{1}{n})$ for some $n\neq N$. If $n>N$, then since $x>n-\frac{1}{n}>N$, $$r>d(x,N)\geq d(x,n-\frac{1}{n}),$$ we have $n-\frac{1}{n}\in B(x,r)$ yet $n-\frac{1}{n}\notin S$, which contradicts that $B(x,r)$ is a subset of $S$. If $n<N$, an entirely similar argument applies to get a contradiction from $n+\frac{1}{n}\in B(x,r)$, thus we must have $x\in (N-\frac{1}{N}, N+\frac{1}{N})$.
But then $$d(N\pm\frac{1}{N},x)\leq d(N\pm\frac{1}{N},N)+d(N,x)=\frac{1}{N}+d(N,x)<\frac{2}{N}<r,$$ so $N\pm \frac{1}{N}\in B(x,r)$ yet $N-\frac{1}{N}\notin S$, which contradicts that $B(x,r)$ is a subset of $S$.