I can't solve the following:
If $f$ is continuous function from $\mathbb{R}$ to $\mathbb{R}$ with $f(f(x))=x$ for every $x \in \mathbb{R}$, then $f$ itself has a fixed point $y$, i.e. $f(y)=y$
I really don't know how to start. Any hint or suggestion is highly appreciated
Consider any $c$ such that $f(c) \neq c$. WLOG, let $f(c) < c$
Now, $f(f(c)) = c > f(c)$.
Now, since $f(x) - x$ is continuous on the domain $[f(c), c]$ so by the intermediate value theorem, it takes on any value in $[f(c) - c, c - f(c)]$ and in particular $0$ since $f(c) - c < 0$ and $c - f(c) > 0$.
i.e. there is some $y \in [f(c), c]$ such that $f(y) = y$