How would we go about showing that?
$$\sum_{k=0}^{n}(-1)^{n+k}{n\choose k}(ak+b)_n=n!a^n\tag1$$
$(x)_n=x(x+1)(x+2)\cdots(x+n-1)$
$(x)_0=1$
Recall from Binomial theorem
$$(x+a)^n=\sum_{k=0}^{n}{n\choose k}x^ka^{n-k}\tag2$$
Setting $a=-1$
$$(x-1)^n=\sum_{k=0}^{n}(-1)^{n-k}{n\choose k}x^k\tag3$$
Maybe differentiates $(3)$ by m times?
$$n(x-1)^{n-1}=\sum_{k=0}^{n}(-1)^{n-k}{n\choose k}kx^{k-1}\tag4$$
$$n(n-1)(x-1)^{n-2}=\sum_{k=0}^{n}(-1)^{n-k}{n\choose k}k(k-1)x^{k-2}\tag5$$
an so on...but I can't see how to get to $(1)$
Let we define the following (difference) operator: $$\delta : p(x) \mapsto (\delta p)(x)=p(x+1)-p(x).$$ There are some simple properties if $p(x)$ is a polynomial with degree $d\geq 1$:
What happens if $p(x)$ is a polynomial with degree $n$ and we apply $\delta^n$ to it? By 1. we get a constant polynomial, and by 2. such constant polynomial is $n!$ times the leading coefficient of $p(x)$. So if we consider $p(x)=(ax+b)_n$ we get that $(\delta^n p)(x)=n!a^n$. On the other hand:
$$ (\delta^n p)(x) = \sum_{k=0}^{n}\binom{n}{k}(-1)^{n-k} p(x+k) $$ is simple to prove by induction, and $$ \sum_{k=0}^{n}\binom{n}{k}(-1)^{n-k} p(k) = (\delta^n p)(0) = n! a^n $$ proves the claim.