Show that $\sum_{k=0}^{n}\binom{n}{k}^2=\frac{n+1}{n}\sum_{k=1}^{n}\binom{n}{k}\binom{n}{k-1}$
I came across this result while trying to solve this:
inductive proof for $\binom{2n}{n}$
My proof is cumbersome, so I hope that someone can come up with a more elegant proof.
Note: I know that $\sum_{k=0}^{n}\binom{n}{k}^2 =\binom{2n}{n} $.
The fact that $$\sum_{k=0}^\infty {n \choose k}^2 = {2n \choose n}$$ has a combinatorial interpretation: to select $n$ items from $2n$, first take an arbitrary subset of the first $n$ items, and if this had cardinality $k$ select $n-k$ of the second $n$ items.
Similarly,
$$ {2n \choose n} = \sum_{k=1}^{n} {n+1 \choose k} {n-1 \choose n-k}$$
and $$ {n+1 \choose k} {n-1 \choose n-k} = \frac{n+1}{n} {n \choose k}{n \choose k-1} $$