How can I show that if $\text{gcd}(a, b, c) = 1$ then there exists $k$ such that $\text{gcd}(a, b+kc)=1$ ?
I tried to use Bezout's relation but couldn't get to keep a unit in front of $b$.
Context: I saw this used in a proof to show that $SL_2(\mathbb{Z}) \to SL_2(\mathbb{Z}/n\mathbb{Z})$ is surjective.
You can prove your claim as follows.
Suppose $\gcd(a,b)=1$, then the claim is obviously true, e.g. by putting $k=0$ (or $k=a$ if you only want positive $k$s).
So suppose $\gcd(a,b)=h>1$, then we can write $a=xh$ and $b=yh$ for some $x$ and $y$. Suppose for a contradiction that the claim is false, in particular suppose that $\gcd(a,b+xc)=z>1$. If $z|h$, then $z$ cannot divide $c$, otherwise $\gcd(a,b,c)\geq z>1$, a contradiction. Then $z|x$. Moreover, if $z|x$, then $z|b$, and so $z|h$. This means that the claim can be false only if $x$ and $h$ are not coprime.
Then, let us consider $\gcd(a,b+c\frac{x}{\gcd(x,h)})$, and suppose it is equal to $w>1$. Now, suppose that $w|h$: then $w$ cannot divide $\frac{x}{\gcd(x,h)}$, so $w|c$, but this contradicts $\gcd(a,b,c)=1$. Then $w|x$ and $w$ does not divide $h$, but then $w|b$, so $w|hy$, which implies that $w|y$, and this contradicts our definition of $h$, since $hw$ divides both $a$ and $b$.