Suppose that $\{v_1,...,v_n\}$ be a basis for an inner product space $V$, and $v=a_1v_1+...+a_nv_n$ implies $||v||^2=a_1^2+...+a_n^2$, then can we say that the given basis is orthonormal? If so how?
I tried that $<a_1v_1+...+a_nv_n, a_1v_1+...+a_nv_n>=\sum_{i,j}a_ia_j<v_i,v_j>$ given that it is equal to $a_1^2+...+a_n^2$, thus can we conclude?
The hypothesis implies $\|v_i\|^{2}=1$ for all $i$ so each $v_i$ has norm $1$. Now consider $\|v_i+v_j\|^{2}$ where $i \neq j$. We get $\|v_i+v_j\|^{2}=1^{2}+1^{2}=2$. Expanding LHS in terms of the inner product we get $\|v_i\|^{2}+\|v_i\|^{2}+2\langle v_i,v_j \rangle =2$ which gives $\langle v_i,v_j \rangle=0$. This is the proof when teh scalare are real . I will leave the complex case to you.