Show that the "calculation rule" is wrong for the scalar product $\left\langle\vec{u},\vec{v}\right\rangle\cdot\vec{w}=\vec{u}\cdot\left\langle\vec{v},\vec{w}\right\rangle$
I have problem showing that because I actually get a true result : /
I did:
Let $\vec{u}= \begin{pmatrix} u_1\\ u_2\\ u_3 \end{pmatrix}$, let $\vec{v}= \begin{pmatrix} v_1\\ v_2\\ v_3 \end{pmatrix}$, $\vec{w} = \begin{pmatrix} w_1\\ w_2\\ w_3 \end{pmatrix}$
Then $$\left\langle\vec{u},\vec{v}\right\rangle\cdot\vec{w}=\vec{u}\cdot\left\langle\vec{v},\vec{w}\right\rangle \Leftrightarrow (u_1v_1+u_2v_2+u_3v_3) \begin{pmatrix} w_1\\ w_2\\ w_3 \end{pmatrix} = \begin{pmatrix} u_1\\ u_2\\ u_3 \end{pmatrix}(v_1w_1+v_2w_2+v_3w_3) \Leftrightarrow$$ $$\Leftrightarrow\begin{pmatrix} u_1v_1w_1\\ u_2v_2w_2\\ u_3v_3w_3 \end{pmatrix} = \begin{pmatrix} u_1v_1w_1\\ u_2v_2w_2\\ u_3v_3w_3 \end{pmatrix}$$
I don't see why it must be wrong? :s
Your last equivalence is false. We don’t have :
$$(u_1v_1+u_2v_2+u_3v_3) \cdot w_1 = u_1v_1w_1$$
Because : $(u_1v_1+ u_2v_2+u_3v_3)$ is a scalar ( a $1 \times 1$ vector).
Now can you continue your proof ?