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How do I show that $f(x)=\frac{(−1)^{n}}{n}$ for every $n⩽x<n+$ and $n\geq 1$ is not Lebesgue Integrable? I'm extremely confused by the notation.
What I need to show is the following: Given that $a_{n} = \int_{n}^{n+1}f$ $\forall n$, show that even though $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}a_{n}$ converges, $f$ is not integrable over $[1,\infty)$.
It seems to me like $\frac{(-1)^{n}}{n}$ is more of an $a_{n}$, which adds to my confusion even more.
Please help! A full solution is preferred; remember that you are talking to an extremely confused and clueless person here.
$f$ is Lebesgue integrable if $\int_1^\infty|f|<\infty$. Here are the graphs of $f$ and $|f|$. Can you see what's happening?
Graph of $f$
Graph of $|f|$
$a_n=\displaystyle\int_n^{n+1}f=\frac{(-1)^n}{n}$ and $\sum a_n$ converges. But $\displaystyle\int_n^{n+1}|f|=|a_n|$ and $\sum|a_n|$ diverges.