During an exam I was given the following task:
Consider the vector space
$$V:=\{p \in \mathbb{Q}[x]\ |\ p \text { has degree at most } 3\}$$
Show that the map
$$y(p)=p(0),\quad V\rightarrow\mathbb{Q}$$
is a linear functional and determine the dimension of the quotient space $V/ker(y)$.
I argued that:
$$y\left(\gamma_{1} p_{1}+\gamma_{2} p_{2}\right)=p(0)=\sum_{i=0}^{n} \alpha_{i} 0^{i}=0$$
and
$$\gamma_{1} y\left(p_{1}\right)+\gamma_{2} y\left(p_{2}\right)=\gamma_{1} p(0)+\gamma_{2} p(0)=\gamma_{1} \sum_{i}^{n} \alpha_{i} 0^{i}+\gamma_{2} \sum_{i}^{n} \alpha_{i} 0^{i}=0$$
However, I am not sure if this is correct, because what is $0^0$?
To determine the dimension of $V/ker(y)$, I argued that $y$ is the zero map with dimension $0$ and that the dimension of a polynomial of degree at most $3$ is $4$, and therefore that the dimension of $V/ker(y)$ is
$$\operatorname{dim} V-\operatorname{dim}(\operatorname{ker} y)=4-0=4$$
Will someone tell me if I messed up?
In such expressions, $0^0$ is defined to be $1$.
Clearly $y$ is NOT the zero map. For example, the polynomial $1 \in V$ gets mapped to $1$. Also $X+1$ gets mapped to $1$.
By the isomorphism theorem, we have $$V/\ker y \cong y(V)= \mathbb{Q}$$
and thus $\dim_\mathbb{Q}(V/\ker y) = 1$.