The random variables $X$ and $Y$ are independent with
$$ f_X (x) = x/α^2 e^{-x^2/2α^2} \text{ for } x > 0 $$ and
$$ f_Y(y) = \frac {1} {\pi \sqrt{1-y^2}} \text{ for } |y|<1 $$ and is zero otherwise.
Show that the random variable $Z = XY$ is $N(0,\alpha^2)$.
My thinking on how to solve this is by finding the joint density $f_{X,Y}(x,y)$ of $X$ and $Y$ given that the individual densities $f_X(x)$ and $f_Y(y)$ are given.
If the joint density was given, I would differentiate the cdf of $X$ with respect to $x$ to get the marginal density (similarly with $Y$). However, I'm not really sure how to do it "in reverse" for lack of a better term. Not certain this is the correct approach.
Take $U=XY$ and $V=X$ then $Y=U/V$. (Note: $V^2 >U^2$) The Jacobian will be $ J= \left[ {\begin{array}{cc} 0 & 1/v \\ 1 & -u/v^2 \ \end{array} } \right] $ i.e. the |$Det(J)|=1/v$ by which you'll multiply the joint density function. Since $X$ and $Y$ are independent, $$f_{X,Y}(x,y)=\frac{1}{\alpha^2 \pi} \frac{1}{\sqrt{1-y^2}}\times x\times \exp{(-x^2/2\alpha^2)} I(x>0, |y|<1)$$
$$f_{U,V}(u,v)=\frac{1}{\alpha^2 \pi} \frac{1}{\sqrt{1-\frac{u^2}{v^2}}}\times v \times \exp{(-v^2/2\alpha^2)} \times \frac{1}{v}=\frac{1}{\alpha^2 \pi}\frac{v \times exp(-v^2/2\alpha^2)}{\sqrt{v^2-u^2}}I(v>0, v^2>u^2)$$
Now simply integrate $v$ out of the above joint density. Note Range of $V^2$ is $(U^2,\infty)$. Substitute $y^2=v^2-u^2$ which implies $v.dv=y.dy$ and range of $y$ will be $(0,\infty)$. $$\int_{|u|}^{\infty} f(u,v).dv=\frac{1}{\alpha^2 \pi}\int_{|u|}^{\infty} \frac{ exp(-v^2/2\alpha^2)}{\sqrt{v^2-u^2}}v \times dv=\frac{1}{\alpha^2 \pi}\int_{0} ^{\infty}\frac{\exp\{-(u^2+y^2)/2\alpha^2\}}{y}y.dy=\frac{1}{\alpha^2 \pi}e^{-u^2/2\alpha^2}\int_{0} ^{\infty}e^{-y^2/2\alpha^2}dy$$ I think now you can figure it out. If you've any further query let's know.