Show that the set of points $x$ where $(f_{n}(x))$ is convergent is a Borel subset of $\mathbb{R}$

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given: $(f_{n})$ are continuous functions from $\mathbb{R}$ to $\mathbb{R}$

my work: Let $A=\left \{ x\in \mathbb{R}|\lim_{n\rightarrow +\infty }f_{n}(x)=L<\infty \right \}$

let $x\in A$ and $B(x,r)$ be given for some $r>0$

$y\in B(x,r)\Rightarrow d(x,y)<r\Rightarrow d(f_{n}(x),f_{n}(y))<\varepsilon _{r}$ (since $f_{n}$ is continuous)

then as $n\rightarrow \infty $, $f_{n}(y)\rightarrow f_{n}(x)\rightarrow L\Rightarrow y\in A$

so $A$ is open then it's a borel subset

Anything wrong ?