Given a function: $$ f: (0,\infty)\to\mathbb{R}$$ I need to show that $$xf(x)$$ is convex if and only if $$f\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)$$ is convex
I'm not sure how to approach this type of problems, convexity isn't my thing.
Any help and hints will be appreciated
I will assume $f$ is twice differentiable since it you're only given convexity if $f''(x)\ge 0$, but as others have mentioned, differentiability is not needed in general.
I'll show one direction, and hopefully you can follow the same sort of idea for the other.
Since $f(1/x)$ is convex, $[f(1/x)]''\ge0$, i.e. $$ [f(1/x)]'' = \frac{2}{x^3}f'(1/x) + \frac{1}{x^4}f''(1/x) \ge 0 $$ (make sure you check this computation). this tells us that $\frac 1 x f''(1/x) \ge - 2f'(1/x)$. If $x>0$, so is $1/x$, so we may replace $x$ with $1/x$ in this computation and see that $$ xf''(x) \ge -2f'(x). $$
Next, we can compute the second derivative of $xf(x)$ which is $2f'(x) + xf''(x)$, and by the above, we see $$ 2f'(x)+xf''(x) \ge 2f'(x)-2f'(x) = 0, $$ which proves convexity of $xf(x)$. The other direction is nearly identical, and you should be able to carry it out on your own if you understood this one.