I am giving a random sample $X_1,X_2,...,X_n$ from a population with exponential distribution, and I've shown that $\overline X$ is a consistent estimator of the mean $\theta$ of the population by showing $$\mathtt{E}[\overline X] = \theta$$ and $$\lim\limits_{n \to \infty}\mathtt{Var}(\overline X) = \lim\limits_{n \to \infty}(\frac{\theta^2}n) = 0.$$
My textbook tells me this is sufficient to show that $\overline X$ is a consistent estimator of $\theta$. In the next problem, however, I am asked whether $X_n$ is a consistent estimator of the parameter $\theta$. $$\mathtt{E}[X_n] = \theta$$ but $$\lim\limits_{n \to \infty}\mathtt{Var}(X_n) = \lim\limits_{n \to \infty}(\theta^2) \neq 0.$$ Thus I cannot conclude this is a consistent estimator, nor does the theorem my textbook provided to me let me conclude this is an inconsistent estimator.
If $X_n$ is a consistent estimator of $\theta$, then by definition $$\forall \ c>0, \ \lim_{n\to \infty} P(|X_n-\theta|<c) = \ 1$$
$$P(|X_n-\theta|<c) = P(-c < X_n-\theta<c) = P(\theta-c<X_n<\theta+c)=e^{\frac{c}{\theta}-1}-e^{-\frac{c}{\theta}-1}$$
whose limit as $n\to\infty$ clearly is not $1$.
Thus the estimator is inconsistent.