$f : X → Y$ is a map.
If f is closed, and $f^{−1}(y)$ is compact in $X$ for each $y ∈ Y$ then show that $f^{−1} (C)$ is compact in $X$ for any compact subset $C$ of $Y$ .
How does the proof go ? I tried using the fact that $C$ contains some $Y$ and for each $y$ it is compact. But I would like to know exact proof.
When I was trying to prove this I was also wondering if the condition $f$ closed is a necessary condition.
Explnation : By $f^{−1}(y)$ is compact in $X$ I think it is $\lbrace f^{−1}(y) \vert y \in Y \rbrace $ is compact. This is my interpretation I might be wrong.
One way to do it: show that if $f$ is closed then for each $y \in Y$, and for each open set $O$ such that $f^{-1}[\{y\}] \subset O$, there is some open subset $V$ of $Y$ that contains $y$ and $f^{-1}[V] \subset O$. (Consider $V = Y \setminus f[X \setminus O]$).
Now if $C$ is compact, let $(O_i)_{i \in I}$ be an open cover for $f^{-1}[C]$. For every $y \in C$, we have that $f^{-1}[\{y\}] \subset f^{-1}[C]$ and the former set is compact and so covered by finitely many $O_i$, say by $O_y = \cup \{O_i: i \in F(y)\}$ where $F(y) \subset I$ is finite. Find $V_y$ containing $y$ with $f^{-1}[V_y] \subset O_y$. Now note that the $V_y, y \in C$ cover the compact set $C$...
That closedness is necessary can be shown by trivial examples: $f$ is the identity between the natural numbers in the discrete ($X$) to the same set in the indiscrete topology ($Y$). This is continuous and inverse images of singletons are singletons hence compact. But $Y$ is compact while $X$ is not.