How do I show that, given the Hermite polynomials $H_n(x)\equiv (-1)^n e^{x^2}\frac{d^n}{dx^n}(e^{-x^2})$, $$\frac{H_{2n}(0)}{(2n)!} = \frac{(-1)^n}{n!}?$$
2026-04-12 03:53:04.1775965984
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showing $\frac{H_{2n}(0)}{(2n)!} = \frac{(-1)^n}{n!}$
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Use the generating function:
$$e^{2 x t-t^2} = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} H_n(x) \frac{t^n}{n!}$$
Note that
$$e^{-t^2} = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} (-1)^n \frac{t^{2 n}}{n!}$$
Compare this with the result of the generating function at $x=0$:
$$e^{-t^2} = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} H_n(0) \frac{t^n}{n!}$$
Note that $H_n(0)=0$ when $n$ is odd. Thus
$$\frac{H_{2 n}(0)}{(2 n)!} = \frac{(-1)^n }{n!}$$
ADDENDUM
You can also use the recurrence
$$H_{n+1}(x) = 2 x H_n(x) - 2 n H_{n-1}(x)$$
to get
$$H_{2 n}(0) = -2 (2 n-1) H_{2(n-1)}(0) = (-2)^n (2 n-1) (2 n-3)\cdots (1)$$
or
$$H_{2 n}(0) = (-1)^n \frac{(2 n)!}{n!}$$
Taylor expansion:
$$e^{-x^2} = \sum \frac{(-1)^n}{n!}x^{2n} \qquad \implies\qquad \frac{d^{2n}}{dx^{2n}}(e^{-x^2})\mid_{x=0} = (-1)^n \frac{(2n)!}{n!}$$
Then $$H_{2n}(0) = (-1)^{2n} e^0 \times (-1)^n \frac{(2n)!}{n!} = (-1)^n \frac{(2n)!}{n!}$$