Let $n \in \mathbb N_0$ and
$$p_n(x)=(-1)^nn!\sum_{k=0}^{n}\binom{n}{k}\frac{(-x)^k}{k!}$$
I need to show that $p_0(x)=1, p_1(x)=x-1$ and $p_{n+1}(x)=(x-2n-1)p_n(x)-n^2p_{n-1}(x)$.
$p_0(x)=1$ and $p_1(x)=x-1$ are easy to show but I struggle to show $p_{n+1}(x)=(x-2n-1)p_n(x)-n^2p_{n-1}(x)$
Comment:
In (1) we separate the first and last term of the sum and apply the binomial identity $\binom{p}{q}=\binom{p-1}{q}+\binom{p-1}{q-1}$.
In (2) we split the sum, merge $1$ into the left-hand sum and multiply out.
In (3) we write the left-hand sum in terms of $p_n$ and apply the binomial identity $\binom{p+1}{q+1}=\frac{p+1}{q+1}\binom{p-1}{q-1}$ to the right-hand sum.
In (4) we apply the binomial identity as in (1).
In (5) we spit the sum and apply the binomial identity as in (3) to the left-hand sum. We also shift the index of the right-hand sum to start with $k=0$.
In (6) we merge $x^{n+1}$ into the right-hand sum of (5) and observe the right-hand sum is $xp_n(x)$. We also shift the index of the left-hand sum of (5) to start with $k=0$.
In (7) we separate the summand with $k=n-1$.
In (8) we shift the index to start with $k=1$.
In (9) we apply the binomial identity as in (1) in the form $\binom{p-1}{q-1}=\binom{p}{q}-\binom{p-1}{q}$. We also start the sum with $k=0$ instead of $k=1$ without changing anything since we add $0$ only.
In (10) we separate the sums, merge $-nx^n$ into the left-hand sum and write them conveniently as preparation for the last step.