Let $G$ be an abelian group such that for all $g \in G$ and for all positive integers $k$, there exists some $h \in G$ such that $h^k = g$.
Now, I would like to show that the group is either the trivial group, or of infinite size. The trivial case is straightforward, but I am having trouble proving the infinite cardinality.
I start by supposing that $G$ has finite cardinality with $|G| = m>1$ where $m$ is some integer. I now pick an abitrary $g$ and $k=m+1$, and the corresponding $h$ so that we have $h^k=g$.
If I am on the right track, I'm lost as to where to go to from here. If I am not on the right track, well then I am quite lost!
Thank you for any help!
Suppose $G$ is finite. Let $g \in G$ be arbitrary. Then there exists some $h \in G$ such that $h^{\lvert G \rvert} = g$. But $h^{\lvert G \rvert} = e$ by Lagrange's theorem! Since $g$ was arbitary, we conclude that $G = \{e\}$ is trivial.