Showing that a map can be deformed into the identity.

39 Views Asked by At

Suppose $F((a,b), k) = (ae^{\pi i k}, be^{\pi i k})$ where $0 \leq k \leq 1$. Now would $g(a,b)$ = $(-a,-b)$ if $g : S^{1} \rightarrow S^{1}$?

1

There are 1 best solutions below

0
On

Hint: Show that a rotation of the circle is homotopic to the identity.