I am asked:
I am focusing on (a).
My proof for it is as follows:
Assume $n=0$, then trivially $nR = 0$.
Assume $n\neq0$, then $nr = 0 \implies r=0$
I suspect, due to how short my answer is. That my proof is in fact wrong, or that I am missing some important steps in order to show it.

You are right to be suspicious (though I would say shortness of the proof is not a reason to be suspicious; rather, the fact that you have never used the assumption that $R$ is simple is). Your proof in the case $n\neq 0$ is incorrect: why would $nr=0$ imply $r=0$? This is true for, say, real numbers, but you can't just assume it is true in any arbitrary ring. For instance, notice that if your ring $R$ is the integers mod $4$, then $2\cdot 2=0$ even though $2\neq 0$ and in fact $2R\neq 0$.
So to get a correct proof you will need to somehow use the fact that the ring $R$ is simple. As a hint, you might first prove that $nR$ is an ideal in $R$.