I've got the following function: $$f(x)=\frac{1}{16x}-\frac{1}{(x+3)^2} $$ And I wish to show that it is convex in the open interval $(0,3)$, took the second derivative, i.e.$$f''(x)=\frac{1}{8x^3}-\frac{6}{(x+3)^4}$$ I painstakingly tried to expand it and algebraically manipulate it to solve $f''(x)>0$, but that seems pretty hopeless, how should I go about this?
2026-03-25 06:03:40.1774418620
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Showing that $f(x)$ is convex in $(0,3)$
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Here's something I would do:
Solve $f''(x)=0$ and test a value inside your open interval.
So we have: $$\frac1{8x^3}-\frac6{(x+3)^4}=0$$
$$\frac{1}{8x^3}=\frac{6}{(x+3)^4}$$
Then I would cross multiply and expand $(x+3)^4$:
$$(x+3)^4=48x^3$$
$$x^4+12x^3+54x^2+108x+81=48x^3$$ $$x^4-36x^3+54x^2+108x+81=0$$
At this point, we could use the Rational Root Theorem to guess roots.
The possible roots are $\pm1, \pm3, \pm27, \pm81$.
Of these, we find that $x=3$ works, as $3^4-36(3)^3+54(3)^2+108(3)+81=0$.
I think you could take it from here.
We are claiming that
$$f''(x)=\frac{1}{8x^3}-\frac{6}{(x+3)^4}>0 \iff\frac{(x+3)^4-48x^3}{8x^3(x+3)^4}>0$$
then we need to prove that (using the idea by Timothy for the rational roots)
$$\bar g(x)=(x+3)^4-48x^3=(x-3)(x^3-33x^2-45x-27)>0$$
that is
$$g(x)=x^3-33x^2-45x-27<0$$
and we have
therefore