I had a question on a past qual that asked just that, where $M$ was an arbitrary module. The question also said not to use the theory of Tor groups. I was able to show that it using Ext groups, but I don't feel that is in the spirit of what was meant by not using Tor groups. Could anyone help prove that $$0\to A\otimes M\to B\otimes M\to C\otimes M\to 0$$ is exact provided $0\to A\to B\to C\to 0$ is exact and $C$ projective? Thank you.
For how I did it with Ext groups, here's a proof sketch:
$$0\to \text{Hom}(C\otimes M,N)\to\text{Hom}(B\otimes M,N)\to \text{Hom}(A\otimes M,N)\to 0$$ is exact by the hom-tensor adjoint theorem iff $$0\to\text{Hom}(C,\text{Hom}(M,N))\to\text{Hom}(B,\text{Hom}(M,N))\to\text{Hom}(A,\text{Hom}(M,N))\to0$$ is exact. Well Since $C$ is projective the above is exact by the long exact sequence for $\text{Ext}$. Therefore for all $N$ $$0\to \text{Hom}(C\otimes M,N)\to\text{Hom}(B\otimes M,N)\to \text{Hom}(A\otimes M,N)\to 0$$ is exact, hence $$0\to A\otimes M\to B\otimes M\to C\otimes M\to 0$$ is exact.
If $C$ is projective, the sequence $0\to A\to B\to C\to 0$ splits. Therefore so does $0\to A\otimes M\to B\otimes M\to C\otimes M\to 0$ which implies it is also exact.