Showing that $\inf(r,s)=r\;\;\forall\;\;r,s\in \Re\;\;\text{and}\;\;s> r$

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Prove that $\inf(r,s)=r,\;\;\forall\;\;r,s\in \Re\;\;\text{and}\;\;s> r$

I tried proving the above but got stuck. Here is what I've done!

Set $\text{S}=(r,s)$, then

$$(i.)\;\;r<x\;\;\forall \;\;x\in \text{S} ,$$

$$(ii.)\;\;\text{Let}\;\;\epsilon>0 \;\;\text{be given. We want to find } $$

$$s_{\epsilon}\in \text{S}\;\;:\;\;r\leq s_{\epsilon}<r+\epsilon.$$

We may choose

$$s_{\epsilon}=r+\frac{\epsilon}{2},\;\;\text{if}\;\;\epsilon\leq s-r,\;\;\text{or}$$

$$=\text{any fixed }\;x_{0}\in \text{S}, \text{otherwise}.$$

Please, I'm I on track? If yes, can anyone help me complete the proof? This choice of $s_{\epsilon}$ does not interest me either! I'll love if someone can give a better choice of $s_{\epsilon}$. Various kinds of proofs are welcome!

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We call $inf(r,s)=i$ if $i\in(r,s)$ then $\exists i' \in(r,i)$ .But then $i'<i$ which is not true. If $i\in (-\infty,r)$ then r does not exist in $(r,s)$. But we can find a greater bound $i''\in(i,r)$ also a contradiction.