I'm trying to prove that
$$ \int_0^{\infty}J_n(bx)dx=\dfrac{1}{b}$$
when $b > 0$ and $n$ is a nonnegative integer. From the recurrence relations I arrived at the identity
$$\int_0^{\infty}J_{n+1}(bx)dx=\int_0^{\infty}J_{n-1}(bx)dx,$$
but I do not see how to use this.
As proved in this other question, the $J$-Bessel function is normalized so that $$ \int_0^\infty J_n(x) dx = 1 $$ for $n \in \mathbb{N}_{\geq 0}$. This implies your claim after a short substitution.