Let $V$ be a vector space over a field $F$, and let $S$ and $T$ be subspaces of $V$ such that $V=S⊕T$.
Show that for every $x∈V$ ,there are unique $y_1∈S$ and $z_1∈T$ such that $x=y_1+z_1$. In other words, show that, if $y_2 ∈ S$ and $z_2 ∈ T$ also satisfy $y_1 +z_1 = x = y_2+z_2$, then $y_1 =y_2$ and $z_1 =z_2$
$P(x):=$unique $y∈S$ such that $x=y+z$ for some $z∈T$
Prove that $P$ is a linear map, and also that we have $P^2(= P ◦ P) = P$. Show also that $Range(P) = S$ and $Ker(P) = T$.
Attempt for the first part:
By definition of direct sum $S \cap T$={$0$}. If $V=S⊕T$ then for every $x \in V$, $x=s+t$ for some $s \in S$ and $t\in T$. Let $n \in S$ and $m \in T$.
Now assume $$n+m=s+t$$ Rearranging we have $0=(s-n)+(t-m)$
Then since $S,T$ are subspaces of $V$ and $s,n \in S$ and $t,m \in T$, then $s-n \in S$ and $t-m\in T$ Therefore both $s-n$ and $t-m$ are equal to $0$ which gives us our uniqueness property.
For the second part I'm stuck I know that this can be rearranged to get $P(x):=$ unique $y ̄ ∈ S$ such that $x − y ∈ T$. But I'm unsure how to continue from here. I know I need to prove the below but I'm confused where to begin to do this with this function and how the range and kernel would be S and T respectively.
$P()=P()$
$P(+)=P()+P()$
First issue:
No, $S \cap T = \{0\}$. It's not possible for the intersection of subspaces to be empty. This is an important distinction!
Second issue:
I have no issue with the statements here, it's more about what isn't here. There is a small (but vitally important) observation skipped here. Specifically, since $t - m \in T$, then so is $$s - n = -(t - m) \in T.$$ Therefore $s - n \in S \cap T = \{0\}$, so $s - n = 0$. You can conclude that $t - m = 0$ too.
This observation is really the heart of the proof, and where you get to use the assumption that $S$ and $T$ sum directly. If I were marking this proof, and I saw the above two errors, I would mark you down. I would assume that if the above steps were something you properly understood (even if you didn't write them down), then you wouldn't say that $S \cap T = \emptyset$.
For the second part, the question is tricky because the map $P$ is not defined explicitly, but implicitly. That is, there's no formula to take $x$ to $Px$. Instead, $Px$ satisfies an equation with a unique solution.
Let's start by taking arbitrary vectors $x_1, x_2 \in V$. Since $V = S \oplus T$, there exist unique $s_1, s_2, s_3 \in S$ and $t_1, t_2, t_3 \in T$ such that \begin{align*} x_1 &= s_1 + t_1 \\ x_2 &= s_2 + t_2. \end{align*} Note that $P(x_1) = s_1$ and $P(x_2) = s_2$.
In order to prove that $P(x_1 + x_2) = P(x_1) + P(x_2) = s_1 + s_2$, we need to find a decomposition of $x_1 + x_2$ into a component in $S$ (which hopefully will be $s_1 + s_2$ and a component in $T$. We can simply get this by adding the above equations: $$x_1 + x_2 = (s_1 + s_2) + (t_1 + t_2).$$ By the first part, this decomposition is unique, and so $P(x_1 + x_2)$ is well-defined to be $s_1 + s_2$.
Now try with scalar multiplication!