I have a question regarding relations that are symmetric, drawn from an algebra book I am busy with. It states...
Let $R$ be a relation from $X\,to\, X$
Let $ \hat R$ be the converse of $R$.
Then, $R$ is symmetric, if and only if $ \hat R \subset R $.
My problem is for what reason is the equality sign not used instead of the subset sign as this seems more logical to me, as in rather...
$R$ is symmetric, if and only if $ \hat R = R $
Suppose that $\hat{R}\subset R$. Take $a,b\in X$ such that $a\mathrel{R}b$. Note that\begin{align}a\mathrel{R}b\iff&b\mathrel{\hat{R}}a\\\implies&b\mathrel{R}a\text{ (since $\hat R\subset R$)}\\\iff&a\mathrel{\hat R}b.\end{align}So, it follows from $\hat{R}\subset R$ that $R\subset\hat R$ and therefore that $R=\hat R$.