Question
Simplify Boolean Expression $A\cdot \overline{B\cdot C+C\cdot A}\cdot B$
My Approach
Start
$A\cdot \overline{B\cdot C+C\cdot A}\cdot B$
De Morgan's Law
$A\cdot(\overline{B}+\overline{C})\cdot(\overline{C}+\overline{A})\cdot B$
Distribution
$A \cdot (\overline{C}+\overline{A}) \cdot B \cdot \overline{B}+A \cdot (\overline{C}+\overline{A}) \cdot B \cdot \overline{C}$
Using $A \cdot \overline{A}=0$
$0+A \cdot (\overline{C}+\overline{A}) \cdot B \cdot \overline{C}$
Using $A+0=A$
$A \cdot (\overline{C}+\overline{A}) \cdot B \cdot \overline{C}$
Distribution
$A \cdot B \cdot \overline{C} \cdot \overline{C}+A \cdot B \cdot \overline{C} \cdot \overline{A}$
Using $A+A=A$
$A \cdot B \cdot \overline{C} \cdot \overline{A}$
Using $A \cdot \overline{A}=0$
$0$
Hence, Final Answer is $0$
While Sites are giving me this as the correct simplification $AB\overline{C}$
Here is your mistake:
No. The two terms are different. In fact, the second term contains $A\cdot \bar{A}$, and thus works out to $0$, but the first term simplifies to just $A\cdot B \cdot \bar{C}$ ... as that website correctly finds.