In my text book I'm asked to deduce a simpler expression for
(p ∨ ¬q) ∧ (¬p ∨ ¬q)
Looking at an equivalency table I did, it seems p ∨ ¬q gives the same results as (p ∨ ¬q) ∧ (¬p ∨ ¬q). However I'm not sure how you would deduce this without the table, as in, if I was outrightly asked to write the above in simpler terms I wouldn't know where to begin. Am I understanding this correctly?
My Table:

Here's the corrected table:
$$\begin{array}{cc|cccc|c} P & Q & \neg P & \neg Q & P\lor\neg Q & \neg P\lor\neg Q & (P\lor \neg Q)\land(\neg P\lor \neg Q)\\\hline T&T&F&F&T&F&F\\ T&F&F&T&T&T&T\\ F&T&T&F&F&T&F\\ F&F&T&T&T&T&T \end{array}$$
From this, you can see that $(p \lor \neg q)\land(\neg p \lor \neg q) \iff (\neg q)$