I'm looking at this logical formula:
$(\neg x\land \neg y \land \neg z) \lor (\neg x\land \neg y \land z) \lor (x\land \neg y \land z) \lor ( x\land y \land z)$
Asked to simplify it as much as possible, and I did something like this:
$((\neg x \land \neg y)\land(\neg z \lor z)) \lor ((x \land z)\land(y \land \neg y)) \equiv (\neg x \land \neg y) \lor (x \land z)$
The tutors book lists my solution along with an alternative one with this as the first step: $(1):(x \land \neg x) \lor (\neg x \land \neg y) \lor (x \land z) \lor (\neg y \land z)$
along with some more manipulation to reach:
$(\neg x \lor z) \land (x \lor \neg y)$
Which left me puzzled as this is one step, and can't figure out which rules they used to get to $(1)$ (I presume it's some standard rule). Any ideas?
In (1) the term : $(¬x∧¬y)$ comes from :
The term : $(x \land z)$ comes from :
Applying idempotency : $a \lor a \equiv a$, we can "duplicate" the 2nd and 3rd disjuncts :
Thus, the original formula is equivalent to :
Now we have :
$(x∧z)∨(¬y∧z) \equiv (x∨¬y)∧z$
$(x∧¬x)∨(¬x∧¬y) \equiv (x∨¬y)∧¬x$
and putting all together :