Attempt: $f: [-1,1] \rightarrow R$ is a continuous function with $x \in [-1,1] \setminus \{0\}$, and it is monotone increasing. Let $f(a)=-1$ and $f(b)=1$. Then, there exists a $c \in [-1,1]$ such that $f(a)<f(c)<f(b)$. Therefore, $f$ has the IVP.
Is this proof okay? I am not sure whether the question asks to show IVP for $x\in R$ or for $x\in R \setminus \{0\}$.
Thank you in advance!

$f(x)$ is not monotone increasing.
while you can still find intervals on which your function is monotone increasing, you really do not need monotonicity at all to prove your case.
All you need is intermediate value theorem on a small interval for which your function covers the interval [-1,1].
Good Luck.