I was reading Dummit and Foote, and in there, there is a line that goes like this:
Since for prime $p$, $p^2-1$ is divisible by $8,$ $x^{p^2-1}-1$ is divisible by $x^8-1$.
I get that $p^2-1$ is divisible by $8.$ But how does that fact imply that $x^{p^2-1}-1$ is divisible by $x^8-1$?
If $$p^2-1=8k$$ then
$$x^{p^2-1}-1=x^{8k}-1$$
Let $y=x^8$, we have $y^k-1=(y-1)\sum_{r=0}^{k-1}y^r$. That is $y-1$ divides $y^k-1$.
That is $x^8-1$ dividis $x^{8k}-1=x^{p^2-1}-1$.