I want to ask why
"If $A$ is skew-symmetric ($A^T=-A$) then $e^{At}$ is an orthogonal matrix".
Here is my solution step:
$e^{At}*(e^{At})^T =e^{At}*e^{-At}=e^{At-At}=e^0$
I think the matrix $e^0$ should be a matrix full of $1$, instead of identity matrix.
Your interpretation of $e^{O}$ is wrong. $e^{O}=I+O/1!+O^{2}/2!+\cdots=I$.