I am working with an Andreas Dress's article, and he says
for a group $U$ (finite), the subgroup $U^p$ is the (well defined !) smallest normal subgroup of $U$ with $U/U^p$ a $p$-group.
I think that is not well defined for all $p$ prime, but for all primes present in the Sylow descomposition of $U$.
However, I define $$U^p=\cap \{H \triangleleft U \mid U/H \text{ is a }p\text{-group} \}.$$
It iss easy verify that it's indeed a normal subgroup of $U$, but why $U/U^p$ is a $p$-group?
Let $\mathscr{P}$ be a property of groups.
Is $$U(\mathscr{P}):=\cap \{H \triangleleft U \mid H \text{ satisfies } \mathscr{P} \}$$ always 'the smallest normal subgroup of $U$ satisfying $\mathscr{P}$'?
Thanks for read.
For your first question: $U/U^p$ can be embedded in the direct product of all $U/H$, satisfying $H \unlhd U$ and $|U:H|$ is a $p$-power (map each $u \in U$ to $uH$ for each $H$, yielding an injective homomorphism with kernel $U^p$). Hence $U/U^p$ is isomorphic to a subgroup of a $p$-group and hence itself a $p$-group.
For your second question: if the property $\mathscr{P}$ is inherited by quotients, direct products and subgroups, then the answer is YES. Examples are being abelian, nilpotent, supersolvable or solvable. It is a NO for being cyclic.